Definite Integrals
Let f(x) be a continuous function satisfying f(x)f(a−x)=1. Then ∫0a1+f(x)1dx equals:
Select the correct option:
Solution
a/2
Let I=∫0a1+f(x)1dx. Using the property ∫0ag(x)dx=∫0ag(a−x)dx: I=∫0a1+f(a−x)1dx.
Given f(x)f(a−x)=1, we imply f(a−x)=1/f(x). Substitute this back: I=∫0a1+1/f(x)1dx=∫0af(x)+1f(x)dx.
Now add the original I and the new form: 2I=∫0a1+f(x)1dx+∫0a1+f(x)f(x)dx 2I=∫0a1+f(x)1+f(x)dx=∫0a1dx=a. Thus, I=a/2.
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About This Question
- Subject
- mathematics
- Chapter
- integral calculus
- Topic
- definite integrals
- Difficulty
- Medium
- Year
- 2025
Solution
Correct Answer:
a/2
Let I=∫0a1+f(x)1dx. Using the property ∫0ag(x)dx=∫0ag(a−x)dx: I=∫0a1+f(a−x)1dx.
Given f(x)f(a−x)=1, we imply f(a−x)=1/f(x). Substitute this back: I=∫0a1+1/f(x)1dx=∫0af(x)+1f(x)dx.
Now add the original I and the new form: 2I=∫0a1+f(x)1dx+∫0a1+f(x)f(x)dx 2I=∫0a1+f(x)1+f(x)dx=∫0a1dx=a. Thus, I=a/2.
This medium difficulty mathematics question is from the chapter integral calculus, covering the topic of definite integrals. It appeared in the 2025 exam.
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