Definite Integrals
Let f(x) be a continuous function satisfying f(x)f(a−x)=1. Then ∫0a1+f(x)1dx equals:
Select the correct option:
Solution
a/2
Let I=∫0a1+f(x)1dx. Using the property ∫0ag(x)dx=∫0ag(a−x)dx: I=∫0a1+f(a−x)1dx.
Given f(x)f(a−x)=1, we imply f(a−x)=1/f(x). Substitute this back: I=∫0a1+1/f(x)1dx=∫0af(x)+1f(x)dx.
Now add the original I and the new form: 2I=∫0a1+f(x)1dx+∫0a1+f(x)f(x)dx 2I=∫0a1+f(x)1+f(x)dx=∫0a1dx=a. Thus, I=a/2.
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About This Question
- Subject
- mathematics
- Chapter
- integral calculus
- Topic
- definite integrals
- Difficulty
- Medium
- Year
- 2025
This medium difficulty mathematics question is from the chapter integral calculus, covering the topic of definite integrals. It appeared in the 2025 exam. Practice this and similar questions to strengthen your understanding of integral calculus concepts.
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